There are many systems in numerology; Hindu (Vedic/Sanskrit), Hebrew (Qabbalah), Zoroastrian (Chaldean), Greek (Pythagorean), Chinese, Tamil, Aztec, etc., go knock yourself out.
My practical experience is that Pythagoras was Greek. Therefore he would've used the Greek alphabet, not English. Similarly Chaldeans spoke Neo-Aramaic. Note that Pythagoras is the Anglicised version of his Greek name. Note also that the double consonant of 'th' (worth 2 + 8 =10!) is represented in Greek by the single letter theta θ (worth 9!)... so, the numbers don't add up depending on the system used!
Now, combine differing alphabets with the fact that both cultures used different calendars - neither of which were the present day Gregorian Calendar - and you get alphanumerical soup á la Monty Python which cannot possibly mean anything contingent nor coherent except for arbitrary value systems imposed upon the letters and numbers. Take for example:
Pythagoras born circa 570 BC becomes Πυθαγόρας c. 570 BC. Let's break it down..
Pythagoras/English: 7+7+2+8+1+7+6+9+1+1 = 49 = 13 = 4
Πυθαγόρας/Greek: 80+400+9+1+3+70+100+1+200 = 864 = 18 = 9.
Two different results. (Greek values are derived from ancient Isopsephy using Latin letter names. They may not be correct, but some other sources concur.)
Also, Πυθαγόρης in Ionian Greek is different again. Pythagoras lived c. 570 – c. 495 BC. Of course none of this makes any sense because it can't. It is nothing but magical thinking. What would his numerology chart look like then ha ha ha! Like this…
Straight away what we're seeing here is how different it is from modern charts, that the modern numerological diagram is based purely on the 2nd Millennium calendar, not any dates pre-Christianity (BCE). Modern dates are based on a ten-integer system of 12 months in the year, 100 years per century, and 1000 years for a millennium. Clearly Pythagoras would've lacked any knowledge of Christ's Advent and most probably they didn't use 4-digit calendar years e.g. 1960. The modern diagram only has pictorial relevance for those living in the modern era and possibly does not represent BC factors.
At this point it's worth bringing up the question of why people accept so-called Ancient Truths as being factual, or historically correct. There is no documented attribution of Pythagoras using the tic-tac-toe chart. It seems to be a modern 20th century invention.
Okay, if you're still buying into the Pythagorean tic-tac-toe chart theory, how and where the fuck did Pythagoras get his year numbers from? The Gregorian Calendar (or for that matter, ANY calendar?) is purely a social construct. It does not exist outside of human reckoning. It is an invention, not Absolute Truth. How then, can arbitrary or random numbers assume significant meaning?
For comparison; this author's chart:
Notice how conveniently a 20th century birth fills most of the squares? In fact I'm guessing that back in Pythagoras's day he only used names, as birthdates would surely have been meaningless. I challenge anyone to show how Mr. P used calendar years!
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Furthermore, regarding a² + b² = c² (the sum of the two squares sitting either side of the triangle is equal to the square of the high pot 'n user):
No, Pythagoras didn't 'invent' the theorem, he learnt it along with the eternal nature of the soul and the concordant practice of yoga and vegetarianism when he visited India. The theorem falsely attributed to him was previously recorded in the Śulba Sūtras compiled by Baudhāyana in the 8th Century B.C.E., several centuries before Pythagoras was even born.
A similar plagiarism happened with the so-called Fibonacci Sequence and Pascal's Triangle which both came from Pingala's writings. These plagiarisms helped promulgate Eurocentric propaganda and the myths of European invention still exist to this day.
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